Why Eliminate Summation in Regularization Term Derivative (Cost Function)?

Can anyone please explain me why we eliminated the summision part from the second term (The regularization term from 1…n) after taking the derivative. Because we didn’t eliminated the summison term of the cost function from 1 to m. Then why the 2nd summison term?

Your response is highly appreciated and will help me clarify my doubts!

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Hi @akanksha004

The summation over j is eliminated because we differentiate with respect to a specific w_j. However, The summation over i remains because we are summing over all training examples.

Hope this helps, feel free to ask if you need further assistance!

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Got it sir. Thank you :grinning:

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You’re welcome! Happy to help :raised_hands: