In the video about Logistic Regression Cost Function of week 2, the loss function is presented as:
L(yhat ,y)=-(y log(yhat) + (1-y)log(1-yhat))
I have two questions:
- Is the log function the base 10 logarithm or the ln function?
- When saying that we want to mimise that function, does that mean that we want to make it, as negative as possible or as close to zero as possible?
Thanks,