In the videos Professor Ng says of avoidable bias and variance to focus on the one with the larger percentage. However, I believe he means percentage points.
For example, suppose the Bayes Error is 1%, the Training Error is 5%, and the Dev Error is 15%. Then, according to Professor Ng, Avoidable Bias is 4% and the variance is 10%.
Using percentages to compare other percentages is ambiguous however. Do we mean relative or absolute difference? So less ambiguously, we would say that there is a 4 percentage point (%p) difference between Training and Dev Errors, and 10%p difference between Training and Dev error.
However, from a relative perspective, comparing Training Error to Bayes Error is a 5x increase, or 500% increase. While comparing Dev Error to Training Error is a 3x increase, or 300% increase.
My question is, are variance and avoidable bias measured in terms of percentage points (absolute error), or percentage (relative error)? Can you give a justification why we use one rather than the other? This is example is extreme, but if in the former, you would minimize bias, in the latter variance.